| Latest Forum Topics / Others |
 Post Reply
|
|
I'm lost...dividends/yields etc etc
|
|||||
|
shplayer
Elite |
01-May-2009 14:55
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
As mentioned earlier, you wiill get a final div of $160.....this is net , after tax....i.e. no further tax is payable. To calculate YIELD, think of it as the 'interest' you will get on your investment...which is $6000......$3 per share....2000 shares. Therefore, Yield is 160/6000 x 100% = 2.67% But bear in mind SPC paid 20c interim div....total div for 2008 was 20+8 = 28c per share. Total div you would have received (if you were entitled to the interim div) = $560 Therefore FY08 yield is 560/6000 x 100% = 9.33%
|
||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
lookcc
Master |
30-Apr-2009 00:18
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
good. | ||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
|
|||||
|
adiriot
Member |
29-Apr-2009 23:32
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
Thanks all. Very clear now. | ||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
lookcc
Master |
29-Apr-2009 23:27
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
yup. | ||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
shplayer
Elite |
29-Apr-2009 22:05
|
||||
|
x 1
x 0 Alert Admin |
wef Yr of assessment 2009, the new tax laws have kicked in. Say, Co. A declares a after tax Div of 10c.....i.e. you get $100 divident per 1000 shares. Previously - This div of $100 is paid from a before tax profit of 100/(1-0.17)= $120.48....i.e you have paid $20.48 tax. If like most of us, you are in the 10% tax bracket, you should have paid 10% of 120.48 = $12.05 tax. IRS will refund you the difference of tax over deducted at source......20.48 - 12.05 = $8.43 But, if you are a high income earner and are in the max 20% tax bracket.....you have 'underpaid' your tax....you should pay 20% of 120.48 = $24.10. Then, you will need to top this up...i.e. pay the difference 24.10 - 20.48 = $3.62 more tax.
As of Year of Assessment 2009, those in the lower tax bracket will not get a rebate and those in the upper bracket (>17%) need not top up. The rich gets richer and the poor gets poorer.....sounds familiar?
|
||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
|
|||||
|
lookcc
Master |
29-Apr-2009 21:39
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
good guy. | ||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
Alligator
Veteran |
29-Apr-2009 21:36
Yells: "learning from past " |
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
To get the meaning of Ex-date correctly, just remember EX is short form of EXCLUDE or without. So Ex-Dividend means exclude dividend, Ex-Rights means exclude-Rights Issues, same for Bonus, etc, etc. Record date is for CDP to record who is entitled the dividend and distribute them on the Payment date. For capitaland dividend, entitled shareholders will get paid on 22 May, Cheque will take a few days to reach your registered address. On the days when shares are trading EX-Dividend, that means all tradings ( example Capitaland on 6 May) are EXCLUDING dividend. Therefore, BUYER buy share excluding Dividend, i.e. Buyer does not get Dividend. On the other hand, SELLER sell his share , excluding Dividend, i.e. Seller keeps the Dividend. Hope this is clear. So, answer to your Q: If we buy the capitland before ex-date entitle divdend ? YES, you are Buyer. Buy during Cum-Div means come with dividend alternative buy after ex-date entitle divdend ? NO, you are buyer, you choose to buy exclude dividend or buy before ex-date ( now u are entitled dividend)and sell after ex-date on 09 May 2009 can get divdend. Yes, seller keep dividend |
||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
Chua_01
Member |
29-Apr-2009 20:55
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
Hi, Bro , can explain what is ex-date, rec. date and payable date ? Example : Capitaland - ex-date on 6 May 2009 , rec date on 08 May 2009 & payable date on 22May 2009 If we buy the capitland before ex-date entitle divdend ? alternative by after ex-date entitle divdend ? or buy before ex-date and sell after ex-date on 09 May 2009 can get divdend. I am confusing the ex-date. Your reply is appreciated. Thank
|
||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
|
|||||
|
lookcc
Master |
29-Apr-2009 19:41
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
just read it up....u will receive d 8 cts in full n u dun hv to pay any tax from it. | ||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
lookcc
Master |
29-Apr-2009 19:30
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
dividends of spc, sph, st engrg n many others r tax exempted [u do not hv 2 pay income tax from their dividends]. | ||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
niuyear
Supreme |
29-Apr-2009 19:03
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
Dont bother about how much you pay for any stock, but only care about how many share you own, then use the share you have multiply the price of dividends. e.g SPC dividend - 1 share is paid 0.08 and you have 2000 shares. $0.08 x 2000 = $160(this is amount you get) Whether you paid $5 or $3.50 for a share, is the number of shares that matter in terms of calculating the dividend. Dividend is tax payable.
|
||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
Braveheart
Member |
29-Apr-2009 18:44
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
don't forget about the tax...which is 17%... | ||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
|
|||||
|
cheongwee
Elite |
29-Apr-2009 15:56
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
1 lot $80..2 lot $160.....the dividend is cal as per share...in this case one share is paid a dividend of 0.08c ..1000 share equal $80
|
||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||
|
adiriot
Member |
29-Apr-2009 15:51
|
||||
|
x 0
x 0 Alert Admin |
Example SPC DIVIDEND : SGD 0.08 FINAL ONE-TIER TAX Then if i have 2000shares at $3, how to calculate the dividends? Thanks |
||||
| Useful To Me Not Useful To Me | |||||